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The KING JAMES ONLY MOVEMENT

The King James Version of the Bible is a beautiful, annointed version (translation) into the English language. It has served humanity for over 400 years. A cultic following of this particular 'version' has arisen that is confusing many Jesus loving Christians. They are known as the KJV "ONLY" movement.

I believe that they are well intentioned, but woefully misinformed and misguided. This film will help to set the confusion straight for those who honestly desire to know THE TRUTH









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Zechariah 12:3,9:
And in that day will I make Jerusalem a burdensome stone for all people; And it shall come to pass in that day, that I will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem.


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Let God give us the Superior Translation and Let us reason together and not to DIMINSH HIS INSPIRED WORD.[written in Hebrew,Aramaic&Greek] being Superiorly Translated during TIMES of REFORMATION...not during these TIMES of CORRUPTION with MANY UNCERTAIN TRANSLATIONS...

For Fair Use Discussion and Educational Purposes

http://www.jesus-is-savior.com/Bible/easter_is_not_a_mistranslation.htm

"Easter" is Only Translated Correctly in the King James Bible

The word, "Easter" has been incorrectly translated "Passover" in all Bible versions except for the authorized King James Bible. How do I know this? The Bible shows it. Notice again in the passage of Acts 12:1-4, King Herod killed James. When he saw that it pleased the Jews, he also took Peter. Notice that Herod took Peter DURING the DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD and was going to bring him forth to the people AFTER Easter.

"In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the LORD's passover. And on the fifteenth day of the same month is the feast of unleavened bread unto the LORD: seven days ye must eat unleavened bread." (Leviticus 23:5,6)

So we learn from this Scripture that the day of Passover fell on the 14th day of the first month, and then the "FEAST of UNLEAVENED BREAD" began upon the 15th day of the first month.

The days of unleavened bread came AFTER Passover! Acts 12:3 tells us that Peter was apprehended DURING the "days of unleavened bread." This means that the day of Passover had ALREADY occurred. "Easter" could not have been Passover, because Passover occurred BEFORE the days of unleavened bread. Passover had come and gone. Herod decided to bring Peter forth AFTER Easter. This is the sequence:

1. PASSOVER

2. DAYS OF UNLEAVENED BREAD

3. EASTER


Let's look at it from the book of Numbers as well:

Passover only comes once a year on one day, the 14th of Abib ( Num 28:16). After the Passover comes the days of unleavened bread (Numbers 28:17), extending from the fifteenth day through the twentieth day of Abib. So when Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (Acts 12:3), Passover had come and gone! The Bible says that Herod was going to bring him forth AFTER Easter ( which had not come yet).

When the King James Bible says " EASTER" in Acts 12:4, it is correct; when the other versions say " PASSOVER" in Acts 12:4, they are incorrect. " Easter" in this passage is referring to a pagan festival (remember the etymology teaches that the pagan " Easter" is almost coincident with paschal (Passover)...

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Regarding HolyGhost or HolySpirit...allow me to explain that just like the names of the 3PERSONs in the 3-in-1 GODhead are not known or named in the OLD TESTAMENT...HOLYGHOST,JESUS[Yahshua]&FATHER[possibly YHWH] was not revealed till NEW TESTAMENT.

For example I died...would you call me a ghost or spirit if you do not know my name but saw me after I died?
Would you call a Person who has no name Spirit or Ghost if he died?
Would God Call the 3rd PERSON COMFORTER and why no name?
God is a Spirit and Father is SPIRIT.
So 3rd Person of the Godhead is correctly called HolyGhost.
I do not believe that it is hearsy to use HolySpirit instead of HolyGhost and if God the HolyGhost is ok...I am ok.

Sometimes when God is refered to as 3-in-1 GODHEAD...Holy Spirit of God is used perfectly because this is adjective and not noun.

Hope this explains the questions in the video who dislikes ONLY KJV.

If ALL TRANSLATION ARE PERFECT the merrier.
However if ANY VERSION is NOT PERFECT...GOD would purify HIS OWN WORD.

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Regarding vulgarity of the words 'Piss', 'whor.e','bast.ard',etc...i believe initially were better use than just 'urine' or 'prostitute' which is not really clearly defined in Hebrew texts...
I believe also that the KingJames people of the past 400years are not as vulgar as these modern end times.

In modern times 'piss' or 'whor.e' or 'bast.ard' or 'ass' or 'gay' became vulgar because we in modern times mis-use these words and corrupted these words which are neutral[pure] in themselves.

If we scold people using 'grace you'...would it not be long that 'grace' will become vulgar?
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I love English Language and certainly hope to know more of Aramaic, Greek and Hebrew but would take many years to fully understand each language well.

Thank God for Faithful PRESERVATION of Superior Translation [English] of HIS PERFECT INSPIRED WORD[Hebrew,Aramaic&Greek].
sharing just my 2 cents.